Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 23:46
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Has your wife or girlfriend ever been felt up in public by a stranger?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
How did you become popular in school?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Why do older siblings always hate younger siblings?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.